my response to Mike FElker

[Rotherham]

I am posting a response here to Mike Felker because his WordPress board is not responding properly.

HEllo Mike:
You said:
Rotherham-
I admit that i’m a little more confused than I already was. So let me ask some questions and share a few thoughts.
-First, where do you get the idea that the “last day” refers to a long period of time?
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The term “last day” or “the last days” or “final part of the days” proves to be an interesting study as to what “time” we are referring to exactly.
We do not believe that he scriptures present “judgment day” as a 24 hour day but as an extended period of time. It is revealed to be during the 1000 year reign of Christ. We know this because of what the book of Revelation reveals for us about judgment in relation to the holy ones who are to judge the world.(details available)(1 Cor. 6:2) Interestingly, the blueletter bible gives one definition of the word DAY as follows:
of the last day of this present age, the day Christ will return from heaven, raise the dead, hold the final judgment, and perfect his kingdom. We would concur with that view of the word “day”. I find that many commentators agree. That is clearly not a 24 hour day but an extended period of time.
This is further witnessed by something I mentioned in my prior response. Jesus Christ often mentioned resurrecting people on the last day. He also spoke of the judgment on mankind being on the last day. (Jn 12:48: Whoever disregards me and does not receive my sayings has one to judge him. The word that I have spoken is what will judge him on the last day.) This informs us that the last day involves both resurrection and judgement. AS mentioned above, judgment day is the 1000 year reign of Christ. Therefore, the time or day for the resurrection would be the same.
We are also informed that the holy ones are resurrected during or at the “parousia” of Christ. According to our understanding of prophecy, that Parousia began circa 1914. If correct, that would mean that the holy ones who were still in the grave could be resurrected circa that time. Since we are told that resurrection takes place on the “last day” and then told that the resurrection begins at the Parousia of Christ, we can logically deduce that the last day begins with the Parousia of Christ because that is when the “first” resurrection begins. The resurrection and judgment of both the righteous and the unrighteous takes place during the millennium according to Revelation (details available ).
Paul gives us further understanding about some details of the resurrection of the holy ones
15 For this is what we tell you by Jehovah’s* word, that we the living who survive to the presence of the Lord will in no way precede those who have fallen asleep in death; 16 because the Lord himself will descend from heaven with a commanding call, with an archangel’s+ voice and with God’s trumpet, and those who are dead in union with Christ will rise first.+ 17 Afterward we the living who are surviving will, together with them, be caught away in clouds+ to meet the Lord+ in the air; and thus we will always be with the Lord.
From this we see that when the parousia of Christ arrives, those who are dead in Christ rise FIRST, THEN those who survive TO te presence will be “caught away” to be with the Lord. According to 1 Cor. 15: 51-55 Look! I tell you a sacred secret: We will not all fall asleep in death, but we will all be changed,+ 52 in a moment, in the blink* of an eye, during the last trumpet. For the trumpet will sound,+ and the dead will be raised up incorruptible, and we will be changed.
Thus,not all the holy ones fall asleep in death but they will ALL be changed. This is in harmony with what we understand to be the case. Many holy ones HAVE slept in death but were resurrected at the Parousia of Christ. However, once that Parousia commenced the holy ones who die do not SLEEP in death, but they are instantly changed into spirits as was Christ in this same context.
Now, as far as the difference between “day” and “days”, consider the following. This also involves the expression “that day” in the Bible and what it points to. Initially it should be kept in mind that one of the definitions of DAY is “used of time in general” so we should be able to see that the Greek word for DAY could also mean DAYS, as in standing for “time in general”.
Scriptures bear out that the day of the Lord or the day of Jesus Christ parallels he time of his parousia I think Baker’s Theological Dictionary has some interesting points about the expression “last day” or “that day” in the the Greek scriptures. Here are some excerpts of interest:
Day of the Lord, God, Christ, the
Expression, often in the context of future events, which refers to the time when God will intervene decisively for judgment and/or salvation. Variously formulated as the "day of the Lord" ( Amos 5:18 ), the "day of our Lord Jesus Christ" ( 1 Col 1:8 ; cf. 2 Col 1:14 ), the "day of God" ( 2 Peter 3:12 ; Rev 16:14 ), or "the last day(s), " the expression highlights the unmistakable appearance of God. God will make visible his rule of righteousness by calling for an accounting by the nations as well as individuals, dispensing punishment for some and ushering in salvation for others.
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The Calendaring of the Day. The "day of the Lord" is not a one-time occurrence. Days of the Lord, while often represented in the Bible as in the future, are not limited to the future. There have been days of the Lord in the past. The catastrophe of the fall of Jerusalem in 587 b.c. was described as a "day of the Lord" ( Lam 2:21 ). Isaiah says that the day of the Lord will involve the fall of Babylon. God's agency will be recognized, for he will "make the heavens tremble; and the earth will shake from its place" ( Isa 13:13 ). God's immediate agent will be the Medes whom he will stir up against Babylon; their action will be decisive. "Babylon, the jewel of kingdoms, the glory of the Babylonians' pride, will be overthrown by God like Sodom and Gomorrah" ( 13:19 ). Historically, that event is to be dated to 539 b.c. Joel, in turn, describes a grasshopper plague that for him represents the day of the Lord as imminent, even immediate. The day of Pentecost, now history, is described as the day of the Lord ( Acts 2:16-21 ).
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Still, for the prophets and for many of the New Testament writers, the day of the Lord points to the future. That future may be centuries distant, as in Isaiah's prophecy about Babylon (chap. 13) or Joel's prophecy about the Spirit ( 2:28-32 ), or it may be in the far distant future. Isaiah's language about the universal humiliation of the lofty and arrogant indicates a grand finale, possibly at the end of history ( 2:12-18 ). The New Testament, while speaking of the Christ event as a day of the Lord ( Acts 2:16-21 ), also speaks of the anticipated day of Christ as his return ( 2 Thess 2:1-2 ), which is yet, after almost two thousand years, still future. The surprise factor (it will come "like a thief in the night") is a marked feature of the day in the New Testament ( 1 Thessalonians 5:2 1 Thessalonians 5:4 ; 2 Peter 3:10 ). Eventually the day of the Lord (God) came to mean the termination of the world.
So, accordingly, the CHRIST EVENT (Parousia) is considered a DAY of the Lord. It begins circa 1914 and continues to the end of the millennium. The parousia is not a one day event according to the scriptures. Math. 24 37 ( For just as the days of Noah were, so the presence of the Son of man will be.) The Greek word pa·rou·siʹa (in many translations rendered “coming”) literally means “being alongside.” It refers to a presence covering a period of time rather than simply a coming or an arrival.

I Am finding that many commentators view the phrase “the last day” or “that day” as a reference to the millennium or the presence of Christ or both together, basically the time of the Messianic kingdom. This should be enough for now. I'll await your response.

Here’s to hoping some day or days we can have that long discussion about 1 Cor. 15. It could be most beneficial. Let me know if you have more questions or confusion.
Regards,
Rotherham